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Cloud Security Knowledge CCSK Exam and Certification Test Engine
Average Salary of Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam Certified Professionals
The average salary of a Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam Certified Professional is:
- India: 4,477,000 INR
- United State: 60,550 USD
- England: 45,000 POUND
- Europe: 50,000 EURO
Topics of Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam
This syllabus outline for the Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam can be found in the CCSk exam dumps pdf and focuses on the critical areas of the exam. Below, the main sections along with their subsections are listed:
1. Cloud Computing Concepts and Architectures
Objectives covered by this section:
- Reference and Architecture Models
- Service Models
- Logical Model
2. Governance and Enterprise Risk Management
Objectives covered by this section:
- Cloud Risk Trade-offs and Tools
- Effects of various Service and Deployment Models
- Enterprise Risk Management in the Cloud
- Tools of Cloud Governance
3. Legal Issues, Contracts, and Electronic Discovery
Objectives covered by this section:
- Data Preservation
- Data Custody
- Electronic Discovery
- Response to a Subpoena or Search Warrant
- Cross-Border Data Transfer
- Contracts
4. Compliance and Audit Management
Objectives covered by this section:
- Compliance analysis requirements
- Right to audit
- Compliance scope
- Audit Management in the Cloud
- Auditor requirements
- Compliance in the Cloud
5. Information Governance
Objectives covered by this section:
- Data Security Functions, Actors and Controls
- Six phases of the Data Security Lifecycle and their key elements
- Governance Domains
6. Management Plane and Business Continuity
Objectives covered by this section:
- Management Plane Security
- Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery in the Cloud
- Architect for Failure
7. Infrastructure Security
Objectives covered by this section:
- Micro-segmentation and the Software-Defined Perimeter
- Security Changes With Cloud Networking
- Cloud Network Virtualization
- SDN Security Benefits
- Hybrid Cloud Considerations
8. Virtualization and Containers
Objectives covered by this section:
- Containers
- Mayor Virtualizations Categories
- Storage
- Network
9. Incident Response
Objectives covered by this section:
- Incident Response Lifecycle
- How the Cloud Impacts IR
10. Application Security
Objectives covered by this section:
- Secure Software Development Lifecycle
- How Cloud Impacts Application Design and Architectures
- Opportunities and Challenges
- The Rise and Role of DevOps
11. Data Security and Encryption
Objectives covered by this section:
- Cloud Data Storage Types
- Securing Data in the Cloud
- Managing Data Migrations to the Cloud
- Data Security Controls
12. Identity, Entitlement, and Access Management
Objectives covered by this section:
- Managing Users and Identities
- IAM Standards for Cloud Computing
- Authentication and Credentials
- Entitlement and Access Management
13. Security as a Service
Objectives covered by this section:
- Potential Benefits and Concerns of SecaaS
- Major Categories of Security as a Service Offerings
14. Related Technologies
Objectives covered by this section:
- Internet of Things
- Serverless Computing
- Mobile
- Big Data
15. ENISA Cloud Computing: Benefits, Risks, and Recommendations for Information Security
Objectives covered by this section:
- VM hopping
- Licensing Risks
- Data controller versus data processor definitions
- Top security risks in ENISA research
- OVF
- Economic Denial of Service
- User provisioning vulnerability
- Isolation failure
- In Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), who is responsible for guest systems monitoring
- Security benefits of cloud
- Risks R.1 - R.35 and underlying vulnerabilities
- Underlying vulnerability in Loss of Governance
- Five key legal issues common across all scenarios
16. Cloud Security Alliance - Cloud Controls Matrix
Objectives covered by this section:
- Delivery Model Applicability
- Architectural Relevance
- Scope Applicability
NEW QUESTION 27
Single cloud assets are typically less resilient than in the case of traditional infrastructure.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud platforms can be incredibly resilient. but single cloud assets are typically less resilient than in the case of traditional infrastructure. This is due to the inherently greater fragility of virtualized resources running in highly-complex environments.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 28
What refers refer the model that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider. The services happen in real time?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Rapid elasticity
- C. Broad network access
- D. On-demand self-service
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is the characteristic of 0n-demand self-service that allows customers to scale their computer and/ or storage needs with little or no intervention from or prior communication with the provider
NEW QUESTION 29
Under the new EU data protection rules. data destruction and corruption of personal data.
- A. does not guarantee damages that can claimed by cloud customer.
- B. does not need notification but cloud service provider is legally liable
- C. are considered forms of data breaches and require notification
- D. does not attract any additional penalty
Answer: C
Explanation:
They are considered as forms of data breached and require notification. Further cloud customer is legally liable.
NEW QUESTION 30
Who is responsible for infrastructure security in Infrastructure as a service(IaaS) model?
- A. Cloud Service User
- B. Cloud Service Architect
- C. Cloud Service provider
- D. Shared responsibility between cloud service provider and cloud service customer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Infrastructure security is shared responsibility between cloud service provider and cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION 31
Which of the following describes the cloud security reference architecture?
- A. ISO 27001
- B. ISO 17788
- C. ISO 17789
- D. ISO 27032
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO 17788 has a cloud reference architecture
NEW QUESTION 32
Which provides guidelines for organizational information security standards including the selection, implementation, and management of controls taking into consideration the organization's information security risk environments?
- A. ISO 27002
- B. ISO 27001
- C. NIST 800-9
- D. FIPS 140-2
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO 27002 is a standard which provides detailed description of security controls and how they need to implemented to provide effective ISMS.
NEW QUESTION 33
Which of following is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor?
- A. VM rootkit
- B. VM DOS
- C. VM HBR
- D. VM Escape
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtual machine escape is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor. Such an exploit could give the attacker access to the host operating system and all other virtual machines(VMs) running on that host.
NEW QUESTION 34
When a cloud customer uploads PII to a cloud provider. who becomes ultimately responsible for the security of that PII?
- A. Regulator
- B. Cloud Provider
- C. The individuals who are the subject of the PII
- D. Cloud customer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Under current law, the data owner is responsible for any breaches that result in unauthorized disclosure of PII; this includes breaches caused by contracted parties and outsources services. The data owner is the cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION 35
The individual's right to have data(PII) removed from a entity/ provider at anytime per their request. is known as:
- A. Right to claim
- B. Right to be forgotten
- C. Right of erasure
- D. Right to disclosure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under this principle of "Right to be forgotten", any individual can notify any entity that has PII fort hat individual and instruct that entity to delete and destroy all of that individual's PII in that entity's control.
This is a very serious and powerful individual right, and compliance can be extremely difficult.
NEW QUESTION 36
The entity that has the primary relationship with an individual from whom his/her PII is collected is known as:
- A. Data custodian
- B. Data Manager
- C. Data Controller
- D. Data processor
Answer: C
Explanation:
The data controller(typically the entity that has the primary relationship with an individual) is prohibited from collecting and processing personal data unless certain criteria are met. For example, if the data subject has consented to the collection and proposed uses of his or her data, then the controller may collect and process data, according to the consent agreement.
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance
NEW QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?
- A. The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.
- B. The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.
- C. The device may affect data dispersion.
- D. The devices used to access data have different storage formats.
- E. The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 38
Who is responsible for Governance, Risk & Compliance in Software as a Service(SaaS) service model?
- A. Cloud Customer
- B. Cloud Service Provider
- C. Cloud Carrier
- D. It's a shared responsibility between Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember, GRC will always remain responsibility of the cloud customer in all service models
NEW QUESTION 39
Which of the following is a responsibility of Cloud customer?
- A. Image Asset Management
- B. Meta Structure
- C. Secure Virtualization Infrastructure
- D. Isolation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Image asset management. Cloud compute deployments are based on master images-be it a virtual machine, container, or other code-that are then run in the cloud. This is often highly automated and results in a larger number of images to base assets on, compared to traditional computing master images. Managing these-including which meet security requirements, where they can be deployed, and who has access to them-is an important security responsibility.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 40
An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to
- A. Use techniques to evade cloud provider's detection systems
- B. Schedule vulnerability test at night
- C. Use application layer testing tools exclusively
- D. Use network layer testing tools exclusively
- E. Obtain provider permission for test
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 41
ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:
- A. Provider may change physical location
- B. Non-binding agreements put at risk
- C. Resource isolation may fail
- D. Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company
- E. Mass layoffs may occur
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 42
Which of the following document defines the roles and responsibilities for risk management between a cloud provider and a cloud customer?
- A. Risk Management Agreement
- B. Service Level Agreement
- C. Operational level Agreement
- D. Contract
Answer: D
Explanation:
Contract defines defines the roles and responsibilities for risk management between a cloud provider and a cloud customer
NEW QUESTION 43
A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?
- A. A support table
- B. An entitlement matrix
- C. An entry log
- D. An access log
- E. A validation process
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following is not one of the essential characteristics as defined by NIST 800-145?
- A. Broad Network Access
- B. On-demand Shelf service
- C. Resource Pooling
- D. Rapid Elasticity
Answer: B
Explanation:
The key characteristic is on-demand self-service and not shelf" service.
NEW QUESTION 45
Which of the following Standards define "Application Security Management Process" (ASMP)?
- A. ISO 27032-1
- B. ISO 27038-1
- C. ISO 27034-1
- D. ISO 27036-1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Organization for Standardization(ISO) has developed and published ISO/ IECN27034-1,
"Information Technology, eSecurity Techniques, eApplication Security, IS0/ IEC27034-1 defines concepts, frameworks, and processes to help organizations integrate security within their software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION 46
Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?
- A. The hypervisor
- B. Configuration and VM sprawl issues
- C. Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor
- D. All of the above
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 47
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